I'm just shaking my head at this whole thing, unbelievable!
So let me pose two examples. Hypothetical of course for the sake of discussion.
First example, I own a piece of property with a house on it. I have a friend or family member that I allow to stay there for whatever reason, maybe they are bums and can't afford to live anywhere else, in other words being a nice guy. I don't charge them rent or make any kind of "formal" lease agreement, just allow them to stay there, as a result they make it their home. 20 years passes, are you meaning to tell me they can then take me to court and attempt this process and claim ownership of the property? Seems to me under law this would be possible.
In a second example, let's say I have a neighbor that is encroaching on my property boundary, and for the sake of argument, I have a large parcel of property and it's not cramping my style so I just decide to be a nice guy and let it slide. 20 years goes by does that give my neighbor the ability to take a piece of my property? Again seems plausible.
In both cases it seems to me that if I am keeping the property taxes current, that in and of itself should prove ample evidence that I have sufficient interest in the property shouldn't it?
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